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Oracle Cloud Infrastructure 2024 Networking Professional Sample Questions (Q106-Q111):

NEW QUESTION # 106
What is the key advantage of using Oracle Cloud Infrastructure FastConnect for inter-region transitive routing compared to Site-to-Site VPN?

A. Easier configuration and management due to automated provisioning.
B. More affordable pricing for low-bandwidth connections.
C. Increased security with encryption and authentication features.
D. Lower latency and higher throughput for critical applications.

Answer: D

Explanation:
Here,s why the other options are not the key advantages:
B). Easier configuration and management: While FastConnect offers automated provisioning compared to manual VPN configuration, this advantage isn,t always the key differentiator. For some organizations, the increased cost or security focus of FastConnect might outweigh the configuration convenience.C. More affordable pricing for low-bandwidth connections: This can be true depending on specific usage patterns and pricing models, but it,s not always the case. For low-bandwidth needs, VPNs can be competitive.D. Increased security with encryption and authentication features: Both FastConnect and Site-to-Site VPN offer encryption and authentication capabilities, making this not a clear differentiator.Lower latency and higher throughput:
FastConnect is a dedicated, private connection that uses physical network infrastructure, resulting in significantly lower latency and higher throughput compared to a shared, internet-based Site-to-Site VPN.
This makes FastConnect ideal for mission-critical applications that require high performance and real-time responsiveness, such as databases, virtual desktops, and cloud gaming.

NEW QUESTION # 107
For maximum security, how should you subnet a VCN with a public web server, private app server, and DB server?

A. All subnets in the same Availability Domain
B. Single public subnet for web, single private for app & DB
C. Separate public & private subnets for each server
D. Overlapping public & private subnet address spaces

Answer: D

Explanation:
Isolation: This approach physically separates the public web server, which is directly accessible from the internet, from the private app and DB servers. This minimizes the attack surface and ensures that even if the web server is compromised, the internal servers remain secure.
Control: You can configure security lists for each subnet with specific ingress and egress rules, further restricting access to each server based on its specific needs.
Best Practices: This aligns with security best practices in cloud environments, where segmentation and isolation are fundamental principles.
Here are the drawbacks of the other options:
A) Single public subnet for web, single private for app & DB:
This exposes the app and DB servers indirectly through the web server, increasing the attack surface.
Granular control of network access becomes difficult.
B) Overlapping public & private subnet address spaces:
This creates unnecessary complexity and potential for misconfiguration.
It offers no clear security benefit compared to separate subnets.
D) All subnets in the same Availability Domain:
This increases the risk of a single event impacting all servers.
Availability is improved by placing servers in different Availability Domains and connecting them through private subnets across those domains.

NEW QUESTION # 108
When using Terraform to create a private subnet for OKE worker nodes within a multi-tier architecture, which resource attribute specifies the CIDR block for the subnet?

A. cidr_block
B. vcn_id
C. subnet_id
D. availability_domain

Answer: A

Explanation:
Here,s why:
vcn_id: This attribute specifies the ID of the Virtual Cloud Network (VCN) to which the subnet belongs. While it relates to the subnet,s location, it doesn,t define the subnet,s specific address range.
subnet_id: This attribute refers to the unique identifier of the subnet itself, assigned after its creation. It doesn,t define the subnet,s address range either.
availability_domain: This attribute specifies the availability domain (AD) where the subnet will be created. While relevant for resource placement, it doesn,t define the CIDR block.
cidr_block: This attribute explicitly defines the network address range allocated to the subnet using CIDR notation (e.g., "10.0.1.0/24").

NEW QUESTION # 109
Which OCI offering should you use?WHEN a load balancer with Layer 4 (protocol-based) traffic distribution for a web application is needed

A. Flexible Load Balancer with Application Load Balancer mode
B. Flexible Load Balancer with Network Load Balancer mode
C. Application Delivery Director (ADC)
D. Gateway Load Balancer

Answer: B

Explanation:
Here,s why the other options are not as good:
A). Application Delivery Director (ADC): While ADCs offer Layer 4 capabilities, they also support advanced Layer 7 functionalities like content switching and application-specific routing. These extra features come at a higher cost, which might be unnecessary if you only need Layer 4 load balancing.C. Flexible Load Balancer with Application Load Balancer mode: This mode specializes in Layer 7 (application-layer) load balancing, focusing on factors like URL paths, cookies, and headers. While it supports Layer 4 balancing as well, it,s overkill for your current need and might incur unnecessary costs.D. Gateway Load Balancer: This offering is currently in preview and not generally available. It,s designed for internet gateway-level load balancing, not within a public subnet for your web application.Flexible Load Balancer with Network Load Balancer mode: This configuration provides the perfect balance:
It leverages the Flexible Load Balancer,s core capabilities and cost-effectiveness.
It offers dedicated Network Load Balancer mode, specifically designed for high-throughput, low-latency, Layer 4 load balancing based on source IP address and port.
This is ideal for efficiently distributing traffic across your web servers without needing unnecessary Layer 7 features.

NEW QUESTION # 110
Which of the following statements about CloudShell''s persistent storage is TRUE?

A. The stored data is automatically deleted after a certain period of inactivity.
B. CloudShell storage can be used to share large files with other OCI users in your tenancy.
C. Any changes made to files in your CloudShell home directory are automatically backed up.
D. You can access your CloudShell storage from any device, regardless of your OCI tenancy.

Answer: A

Explanation:
While CloudShell offers persistent storage for user-specific files and configurations, it follows a specific deletion policy to manage available space and ensure proper resource allocation. This means that if you haven,t interacted with your CloudShell instance for a certain period, your stored data may be automatically deleted.
Here,s a breakdown of the other options and their accuracy:
A). You can access your CloudShell storage from any device, regardless of your OCI tenancy. This is incorrect. CloudShell storage is region-specific. Your data in one region,s CloudShell instance won,t be accessible from another region, and it,s also tied to your tenancy within OCI.B. Any changes made to files in your CloudShell home directory are automatically backed up. CloudShell doesn,t have a built-in automatic backup mechanism. If you need backups, you,ll need to manually initiate them using tools like rsync or integrate your own backup solution.D. CloudShell storage can be used to share large files with other OCI users in your tenancy. While you can technically share files within your tenancy using CloudShell storage, it,s generally not recommended for large files due to potential performance limitations and security concerns. Consider using more suitable services like OCI Object Storage for large file sharing.

NEW QUESTION # 111
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